Which of the following contains the phytonutrient allicin?
A. Grape
B. Cauliflower
C. Garlic correct
D. Chilli
Q133MCQ1 mark
Which mold is responsible for the characteristic blue marbling in blue-veined
cheese?
A. Rhizopus oryzae
B. Penicillium roqueforti correct
C. Aspergillus niger
D. Penicillium camemberti
Q134MCQ1 mark
Which genus of bacteria does NOT have cell wall?
A. Lactobacillus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Mycoplasma correct
D. Escherichia
Q135MCQ1 mark
Which of the following pigment does NOT have pro-vitamin A activity?
A. beta -Carotene
B. beta -Cryptoxanthin
C. Lycopene correct
D. alpha -Carotene
Q136MCQ1 mark
Identify the analysis that must be performed FIRST to judge ‘cleanliness’ of
spice/herb powders.
A. Acid-insoluble ash content correct
B. Pesticide residue levels
C. Volatile oil content
D. Mycotoxin levels
Q137MCQ1 mark
If there is a delay in oil extraction after bran is separated from the brown rice, the
quality of rice bran oil deteriorates. Identify the suitable CAUSE and EFFECT for
the deterioration in oil quality.
A. Lipase activity; increase in FFA correct
B. Oil hydrolysis; decrease in FFA
C. Lipase activity; decrease in FFA
D. Bran stabilization; decrease in lipase activity
Q138MSQ1 mark
Among the following, which is/are the process(es) that lead to generation of new
fats from existing ones?
A. Transesterification correct
B. Degumming
C. Hydrogenation correct
D. Winterization
Q139NAT1 mark
The true density and bulk density of wheat grains are 1280 kg/m3 and 740 kg/m3,
respectively. The porosity of the grains is ____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Correct: 0.4 to 0.44
Q140NAT1 mark
Potato slices weighing 50 kg is dried from 60% moisture content (wet basis) to 5%
moisture content (dry basis). The amount of dried potato slices obtained (in kg) is
_______. (Answer in integer)
Correct: 21
Q141MCQ2 marks
Identify the gas composition (in percent) suitable for packaging cured meat under
MAP conditions.
A. O2 = 0; CO2 = 50; N2 = 50 correct
B. O2 = 50; CO2 = 0; N2 = 50
C. O2 = 0; CO2 = 0; N2 = 100
D. O2 = 50; CO2 = 50; N2 = 0
Q142MCQ2 marks
Which of the following sequence of events occurs during formation of egg-white gel?
Assume: PN: Native protein; PD: Denatured protein; PA: Aggregated protein; PG: Protein gel
→: forward reaction; ↔: reversible reaction; Δ: heating; ∇: cooling
A. PN ↔(Δ) PD ↔(∇) PA ↔(∇) PG
B. PN ↔(Δ) PD →(Δ) PA →(Δ) PG correct
C. PN ↔(Δ) PD →(∇) PG
D. PN ↔(Δ) PA →(Δ) PG
Q143MCQ2 marks
In canning and retorting of foods, which of the following is the correct expression
of Ball process time (B)?
Assume: tp = processor’s process time; tc = come-up time
A. B = tp + 0.42 tc correct
B. B = tp + 0.30 tc
C. B = tp + 0.50 tc
D. B = tp + 0.25 tc
Q144MCQ2 marks
Which of the following is the most suitable flexible packaging laminate for dry
fruits?
A. PET/LDPE
B. PS/LDPE
C. BOPP/LDPE correct
D. Nylon/LDPE
Q145MCQ2 marks
Identify the CORRECT sequence of operations for dressing of poultry.
A. Slaughtering and bleeding → scalding → defeathering → eviscerating → chilling correct
B. Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → scalding → eviscerating → chilling
C. Slaughtering and bleeding →eviscerating → defeathering → scalding →chilling
D. Slaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → eviscerating → scalding → chilling
Q146MSQ2 marks
Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for a package of gamma-
irradiated (7.5 kGy) whole chicken?
A. Nutritional quality of the product deteriorates after irradiation.
B. Spores of C. botulinum can survive in the irradiated product. correct
C. ‘Radura’ symbol does not ensure safety of the irradiated product for consumption. correct
D. Energy needed for the irradiation process is much higher than that required for
freezing of the product.
Q147MSQ2 marks
Match the following food products in Column I with their corresponding processes
in Column II.
Column I
Column II
P
Idli
1
Baking
Q
Parboiled rice
2
Fermentation
R
Soda beverage
3
Gelatinization
S
Cookies
4
Carbonation
A. P-2;Q-3;R-4;S-1 correct
B. P-3;Q-2;R-4;S-1
C. P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
D. P-2;Q-3;R-1;S-4
Q148MSQ2 marks
Which of the following is/are inhibitor(s) of enzymatic browning in peeled
potatoes?
A. Citric acid correct
B. EDTA correct
C. Mannitol
D. Ascorbic acid correct
Q149MSQ2 marks
Match the following enzymes in Column I with their applications in Column II.
Column I
Column II
P
beta -Glucanase
1
Fruit juice clarification
Q
alpha - and beta -Amylases
2
Bread making
R
Pectinase
3
Meat tenderization
S
Papain
4
Brewing
A. P-3;Q-1;R-2;S-4
B. P-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3 correct
C. P-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3 correct
D. P-1;Q-2;R-3;S-4
Q150NAT2 marks
The F121 value of a known microorganism with Z value of 11 °C is 2.4 min for
99.9999% inactivation. For a 12D inactivation of the said microorganism at
143 °C, the F value (in min) is _____. (rounded off to 3 decimal places)
Correct: 0.046 to 0.05
Q151NAT2 marks
Consider that specific heat (0 to 50 °C) of water, water vapour and air remains
constant: 4.48, 1.88 and 1.0 kJ/ (kg °C), respectively. Assuming, the heat energy
required to convert 1 kg of water to water vapour at 0 °C is 2000 kJ, the enthalpy
(in kJ/ kg dry air) of atmospheric air containing 0.05 kg water vapour per kg dry
air at 50 °C is ____.(rounded off to 1 decimal place)
Correct: 152 to 156
Q152NAT2 marks
A fruit juice is concentrated using an ultrafiltration membrane. A feed stream at
10 kg/min with 6% total solids (by weight) is increased to 20% total solids (by
weight). The membrane tube has 10 cm inside diameter and the pressure difference
across the membrane is 2000 kPa. If the permeability constant of the membrane is
5 × 10-5 kg water/ (m2 kPa s), the length of membrane tube (in m) is______.
(rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Correct: 3.65 to 3.75
Q153NAT2 marks
In a typical grinding operation, 80% of the feed material passes through a sieve
opening of 4.75 mm; whereas, 80% of the ground product passes through 0.5 mm
opening. If the power required to grind 2 tonnes/h of the feed material is
3.8 kW, the work index of the material is _______. (rounded off to 2 decimal
places)
Correct: 6.25 to 6.32
Worked solutions are not printed here — every one of these questions carries a
full explanation inside the test itself, which is where it is actually useful:
after an answer has been committed.
Sit the 2025 paper.