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GATE XE 2022 Food Technology question paper

Every Food Technology question from the GATE Engineering Sciences (XE) paper sat in 2022, exactly as it was set — with the options and the answer key. The full paper's section-by-section pattern is below.

Food Technology questions
21
Food Technology marks
34
Full paper
239 marks
Duration
180 minutes

What the 2022 paper contained

Counted from the paper itself, not from a notification — the row highlighted below is the section this page reproduces.

Sections, questions and marks in the 2022 paper
Section Questions Marks Question types
Engineering Mathematics 10 14 4 MCQ, 6 NAT
Fluid Mechanics 19 30 7 MCQ, 4 MSQ, 8 NAT
Materials Science 20 32 10 MCQ, 2 MSQ, 8 NAT
Solid Mechanics 20 31 11 MCQ, 9 NAT
Thermodynamics 19 31 7 MCQ, 12 NAT
Polymer Science and Engineering 22 35 13 MCQ, 2 MSQ, 7 NAT
Food Technology 21 34 7 MCQ, 7 MSQ, 7 NAT
Atmospheric and Ocean Sciences 20 32 8 MCQ, 5 MSQ, 7 NAT

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Food Technology questions, 2022 — with answer key

21 questions, numbered as they were in the paper. The correct option is marked on each.

Q133 MCQ 1 mark
Homogenization of milk leads to disintegration of fat globules by
  1. A. Turbulence and pasteurization
  2. B. Pasteurization and cavitation
  3. C. Pasteurization and pressurization
  4. D. Turbulence and cavitation Page 95 of 114 correct
Q134 MCQ 1 mark
The lowest water activity (aw) supporting the growth of Staphylococcus aureus in
food under aerobic condition is
  1. A. 0.98
  2. B. 0.91
  3. C. 0.89
  4. D. 0.86 correct
Q135 MSQ 1 mark
Cultures used in industrial production of yogurt are
  1. A. Lactococcus lactis subsp. lactis
  2. B. Streptococcus thermophilus correct
  3. C. Leuconostoc mesenteroides subsp. cremoris
  4. D. Lactobacillus delbrueckii subsp. bulgaricus Page 96 of 114 correct
Q136 MSQ 1 mark
In a dairy plant, spray drying technology is used to produce whey powder. The rate
of spray drying depends on
  1. A. Temperature of the incoming air correct
  2. B. Shape of the cyclone separator
  3. C. Diameter of the whey droplet correct
  4. D. Heat transfer coefficient of hot air correct
Q137 MSQ 1 mark
The parboiling of paddy results into
  1. A. Increase in the milling losses
  2. B. Increase in the nutritional value of rice correct
  3. C. Increase in the head rice recovery correct
  4. D. Increase in the broken rice percentage
Q138 NAT 1 mark
One hundred kg paddy is dried from 18% wet basis to 13% wet basis moisture
content. The amount of water removed (in kg) from the paddy is _______ (round
off to one decimal place).

Correct: 5.5 to 6

Q139 NAT 1 mark
The radius of a centrifuge bowl is 0.1 m and is rotating at 850 revolutions per
minute. The centrifugal force developed in terms of gravity force (g-force) is
________ (round off to two decimal places).
Given: Acceleration of gravity (g) = 9.81 m s-2 and π = 3.14
Page 97 of 114

Correct: 79.5 to 81.5

Q140 NAT 1 mark
In a canning industry, the total process time (F0) was calculated as 3 min. If each
can contains 20 spores having decimal reduction time of 1.6 min, the probability of
spoilage would be ______ in 100 cans (round off to the nearest integer).

Correct: 25 to 28

Q141 MCQ 2 marks
Match the edible oil refining stages given in Column I with their respective
functions in Column II
Column I
Column II
P. Degumming
1. Separation of waxes
Q. Neutralization
2. Removal of pigments
R. Bleaching
3. Removal of phosphatides
S. Winterization
4. Removal of free fatty acids
  1. A. P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
  2. B. P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
  3. C. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 correct
  4. D. P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 Page 98 of 114
Q142 MCQ 2 marks
Make the correct pair of food packaging technology given in Column I with
operating principle or description in Column II.
Column I
Column II
P. Aseptic packaging
1. Control of the concentration of O2
and CO2 inside the package
Q. Active packaging
2. Create a skin tight package wall
R. Modified atmosphere packaging
3. Independent sterilization of food
and packaging material and
packaging under sterile
environment
S. Vacuum packaging
4. Makes non-passive contribution to
product development
  1. A. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 correct
  2. B. P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
  3. C. P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
  4. D. P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 Page 99 of 114
Q143 MCQ 2 marks
Which of the following is not a caramel flavour producing compound?
  1. A. 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpyran-4-one
  2. B. 2H-4-Hydroxy-5-methylfuran-3-one
  3. C. 3-Hydroxy-2-acetylfuran
  4. D. p-Amino benzoicacid correct
Q144 MCQ 2 marks
Match the size reduction equipment in Column I with the method of operation in
Column II.
Column I
Column II
P. Hammer mill
1. Compression
Q. Burr mill
2. Impact
R. Crushing rolls
3. Cutting
S. Rotary knife
4. Attrition
  1. A. P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 correct
  2. B. P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
  3. C. P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
  4. D. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 Page 100 of 114
Q145 MCQ 2 marks
Most commonly used refrigerant in direct immersion freezing of food is
  1. A. Monochlorodifluoromethane
  2. B. Dichlorodifluoromethane
  3. C. Liquid nitrogen correct
  4. D. Freon
Q146 MSQ 2 marks
Which among the following are omega -6 poly unsaturated essential fatty acids?
  1. A. 18:2 Linoleic acid correct
  2. B. 18:3 alpha -Linolenic acid
  3. C. 18:3 gamma -Linolenic acid correct
  4. D. 20:4 Arachidonic acid correct
Q147 MSQ 2 marks
Which among the following statements are true with respect to protein
denaturation?
  1. A. There may be an increase in alpha -helix and beta -sheet structure correct
  2. B. It is an irreversible process
  3. C. When fully denatured, globular proteins resemble a random coil correct
  4. D. The peptide bonds are broken Page 101 of 114
Q148 MSQ 2 marks
Identify the correct pair(s) of milling equipment and the grain for which it is used.
  1. A. Mist polisher–Rice correct
  2. B. Break roll–Wheat correct
  3. C. Rubber roll–Pigeon pea
  4. D. Beall degermer–Maize correct
Q149 MSQ 2 marks
Which among the following expression(s) is/are correct?
  1. A. Reynolds number = ஽௘௡௦௜௧௬ൈ௏௘௟௢௖௜௧௬ൈ஼௛௔௥௔௖௧௘௥௜௦௧௜௖ௗ௜௠௘௡௦௜௢௡ ௏௜௦௖௢௦௜௧௬ correct
  2. B. Nusselt number = ஼௢௡௩௘௖௧௜௩௘௛௘௔௧௧௥௔௡௦௙௘௥௖௢௘௙௙௜௖௜௘௡௧ൈ஼௛௔௥௔௖௧௘௥௜௦௧௜௖ ௗ௜௠௘௡௦௜௢௡் ௛௘௥௠௔௟௖௢௡ௗ௨௖௧௜௩௜௧௬௢௙௦௢௟௜ௗ
  3. C. Schmidt number = ௄௜௡௘௠௔௧௜௖௩௜௦௖௢௦௜௧௬௢௙௙௟௨௜ௗ ஽௜௙௙௨௦௜௩௜௧௬ correct
  4. D. Biot number = ஼௢௡௩௘௖௧௜௩௘௛௘௔௧௧௥௔௡௦௙௘௥௖௢௘௙௙௜௖௜௘௡௧ൈ஼௛௔௥௔௖௧௘௥௜௦௧௜௖ௗ௜௠௘௡௦௜௢௡் ௛௘௥௠௔௟௖௢௡ௗ௨௖௧௜௩௜௧௬௢௙௙௟௨௜ௗ Page 102 of 114
Q150 NAT 2 marks
In sieve analysis of coffee powder, the particle size distribution is given below
Number of particles
Mean particle size ( mu m)
5
40
8
30
50
20
90
17.5
148
12.5
10
10
The Sauter mean diameter (in mu m) of the coffee powder is ______
(round off to one decimal place).

Correct: 19 to 20.5

Q151 NAT 2 marks
In a dairy processing plant, milk enters a 30 m long and 2 cm diameter tube at
60 degrees C and leaves at 57 degrees C. The total heat loss over the tube length is 381.15 W. The
specific heat capacity, density, and viscosity of milk are 3.85 kJ kg-1 K-1,
1020 kg m-3, and 1.20 cP, respectively. The Reynolds number for the flow is ______
(round off to the nearest integer).
Given: π = 3.14

Correct: 1700 to 1800

Q152 NAT 2 marks
Apple juice flows through a steel pipe having thermal conductivity of
50 W m-1 K-1. The outer surface of pipe is exposed to ambient environment. The
inside diameter and thickness of the pipe are 3 cm and 1.5 cm, respectively. The
overall heat transfer coefficient based on inside area is 25 W m-2 K-1. If the internal
convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 W m-2 K-1, the external convective heat
transfer coefficient (in W m-2 K-1) will be __________ (round off to two decimal
places).






Page 103 of 114

Correct: 73 to 84

Q153 NAT 2 marks
The dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air inside a storage chamber are
37 degrees C and 50%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water vapour at 37 degrees C and
barometric pressure are 6.28 kPa and 101.32 kPa, respectively. The humidity ratio
of air inside the chamber is ______ kg water (kg dry air)-1 (round off to three
decimal places).
Given: Molecular weight of water vapour and dry air are 18.02 g mol-1 and
28.97 g mol-1, respectively.





Page 104 of 114 
 
Atmospheric and Oceanic Sciences XE-H (
)

Correct: 0.017 to 0.021

Worked solutions are not printed here — every one of these questions carries a full explanation inside the test itself, which is where it is actually useful: after you have committed to an answer. Sit the 2022 paper.

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