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Food Science Daily

GATE XE previous-year paper

GATE XE 2016 Food Technology question paper

Food Technology questions
22
Food Technology marks
35
Full paper marks
65
Duration
180 min

What the 2016 paper contained

Sections, questions and marks in the 2016 paper
Section Questions Marks Question types
General Aptitude 10 15 8 MCQ, 2 NAT
Engineering Mathematics 11 15 7 MCQ, 4 NAT
Food Technology 22 35 16 MCQ, 6 NAT

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Food Technology questions, 2016 — with answer key

22 questions, with the answer marked.

Q1 MCQ 1 mark
Bread staling is caused by _________.
  1. A. Caramelisation
  2. B. Gelatinisation
  3. C. Retrogradation correct
  4. D. Aggregation
Q2 MCQ 1 mark
Arrange the grades of tea in the increasing order of their leaf size _____, _______ and ______.
  1. A. Souchang, pekoe and orange pekoe correct
  2. B. Pekoe, souchang and orange pekoe
  3. C. Orange pekoe, souchang, and pekoe
  4. D. Orange pekoe, pekoe, and souchang
Q3 NAT 1 mark
Fruit juice is being pasteurized in a tubular heat exchanger. The retention time in holding tube of 0.2 m² cross sectional area is 3 seconds. If the flow rate of juice is 0.4 m³ s⁻¹, the length of the holding tube in m, is _____.

Correct: 5.9 to 6.1

Q4 MCQ 1 mark
The oil, which experiences flavor reversion even at the lower peroxide value is _______.
  1. A. Mustard
  2. B. Soybean correct
  3. C. Palm
  4. D. Sesame
Q5 NAT 1 mark
80 kg of wheat containing 10 kg of moisture has been dried to a moisture content of 8% wet basis in 3 hours under constant rate period of drying. The drying rate in kg h⁻¹ is _____

Correct: 1.3 to 1.4

Q6 MCQ 1 mark
The rate of cream separation in a disc bowl centrifuge can be increased by ______
  1. A. Increasing the size of the bowl
  2. B. Lower viscosity of fluid
  3. C. Increasing RPM of the bowl
  4. D. All of these correct
Q7 MCQ 1 mark
Which one of the following is not used in mass transfer analysis?
  1. A. Biot number correct
  2. B. Peclet number
  3. C. Schmidt number
  4. D. Sherwood number
Q8 MCQ 1 mark
Oxygen is permeating through an EVOH film of thickness ‘t’ and solubility coefficient ‘S’. If diffusivity of oxygen through the film is ‘D’, then permeability of oxygen through the film will be ______.
  1. A. D/t
  2. B. D/S
  3. C. D × S correct
  4. D. S/D
Q9 MCQ 1 mark
Condensing steam is used to heat vegetable oil in a double pipe co-current heat exchanger. If the inlet and outlet temperature of steam are Thi and Tho, and for vegetable oil Tci and Tco, respectively, the log mean temperature difference (ΔT_LM) will be _______
  1. A. (Thi − Tco) / ln[(Thi − Tci)/(Thi − Tco)]
  2. B. [(Tho − Tco) − (Thi − Tco)] / ln[(Tho − Tci)/(Tho − Tco)]
  3. C. [(Thi − Tco) − (Tho − Tci)] / ln[(Thi − Tci)/(Tco − Tci)]
  4. D. (Tco − Tci) / ln[(Thi − Tci)/(Thi − Tco)] correct
Q10 MCQ 2 marks
Match the food spoilage organisms given in Column I with the associated foods given in Column II
Column I
P. Clostridium botulinum
Q. Salmonella spp.
R. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
S. Bacillus cereus
Column II
1. Fish
2. Cooked starch foods
3. Meat, egg and poultry
4. Canned foods
  1. A. P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 correct
  2. B. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  3. C. P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
  4. D. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
Q11 MCQ 2 marks
Fluid is flowing inside a pipe of radius ‘R’ in fully developed laminar flow. If the velocity of the fluid at the centre at a distance ‘L’ is ‘v_max’, velocity at radial distance of ¾ (R) will be __times v_max
  1. A. 9/16
  2. B. 7/16 correct
  3. C. 16/9
  4. D. 16/7
Q12 NAT 2 marks
A meat ball with a radius of 25.4 mm at a temperature of 700 K, is suddenly plunged into a medium whose temperature is held at 395 K. Assume a convective heat transfer coefficient of 11.5 W m⁻² K⁻¹ and take the average physical properties as: K = 44 W m⁻¹ K⁻¹, ρ = 7850 kg m⁻³ and cp = 0.4606 kJ kg⁻¹K⁻¹. The temperature (K) of the meat ball after one hour is _____

Correct: 472 to 475

Q13 MCQ 2 marks
a) Assertion: Acidulates are added in soft drinks to provide a buffering action.
r) Reason: Buffers tend to prevent changes in pH and prevent excessive tartness.
Choose the correct answer from the following
  1. A. Both a) and r) are true but r) is not the correct reason
  2. B. Both a) and r) are true and r) is the correct reason for a) correct
  3. C. a) is true but r) is false
  4. D. Both a) and r) are false
Q14 NAT 2 marks
The D₁₂₁ and Z values for C. botulinum spores in canned food are 0.2 min and 10 °C respectively. Total time required in min, to reduce the spores from 10² to 10⁻⁶ at 111 °C is _______ .

Correct: 15 to 17

Q15 MCQ 2 marks
a) Assertion: Olestra is used as a zero calorie fat replacer
r) Reason: It is a sucrose polyester with 6-8 acyl group and is not absorbed in the human digestive system.
Choose the correct answer from the following
  1. A. Both a) and r) are false
  2. B. Both a) and r) are true, but r) is not the correct reason for a)
  3. C. a) is true but r) is false
  4. D. Both a) and r) are true and r) is the correct reason for a) correct
Q16 MCQ 2 marks
Match the enzymes in Column I with their functions in Column II
Column I
P. Amylase
Q. Invertase
R. Phosphatase
S. Protease
Column II
1. Conversion of sucrose to glucose and fructose
2. Softening of dough
3. Effectiveness of pasteurization
4. Conversion of starch to maltose
  1. A. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
  2. B. P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 correct
  3. C. P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
  4. D. P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
Q17 MCQ 2 marks
Match the terms in Column I with their most appropriate description in Column II
Column I
P. Enrichment
Q. Fortification
R. Supplementation
S. Complementation
Column II
1. Overcome the deficiency of nutrient by mixing of two plant sources
2. Overcome the deficiency of nutrient from a synthetic source
3. Restoration of nutrient which is lost during processing
4. Addition of nutrient which may or may not originally present
  1. A. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 correct
  2. B. P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  3. C. P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
  4. D. P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
Q18 MCQ 2 marks
Match the products in Column I with their Original Phase in Column II
Column I
P. Milk
Q. Butter
R. Lactose
S. Casein
Column II
1. Colloidal
2. Solution
3. Water in oil emulsion
4. Oil in water emulsion
  1. A. P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  2. B. P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  3. C. P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 correct
  4. D. P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
Q19 MCQ 2 marks
a) Assertion: Presence of low sulphur containing amino acids make casein in milk to boil, sterilize and concentrate without coagulation even at higher temperature.
r) Reason: This is due to the restricted formation of di-sulphide bonds resulting in increased stability.
Choose the correct answer from the following
  1. A. Both a) and r) are true and r) is the correct reason for a) correct
  2. B. Both a) and r) are true but r) is not the correct reason for a)
  3. C. Both a) and r) are false
  4. D. a) is true but r) is false
Q20 MCQ 2 marks
In a typical Psychrometric Chart shown below, the processes OP, OQ and OR related to air water vapor mixture are _____, _______ and __________.
Diagram for this question
  1. A. Cooling & dehumidification, cooling & humidification, heating & humidification
  2. B. Cooling & dehumidification, heating & humidification, drying
  3. C. Heating & humidification, cooling & humidification, cooling & dehumidification correct
  4. D. Heating & humidification, cooling & dehumidification, drying
Q21 NAT 2 marks
A fruit juice with a negligible boiling point rise is being evaporated using saturated steam at 121.1 °C in a triple effect evaporator having equal area in each effect. The pressure of the vapor in the last effect is 25.6 kPa absolute and the corresponding saturation temperature is 65.7 °C. The heat transfer coefficients are U₁ = 2760, U₂ =1875 and U₃ = 1350 W m⁻² K⁻¹. The boiling point (°C) in the first effect is __ .

Correct: 108 to 109

Q22 NAT 2 marks
In an aeration system, 520 kg of wheat grains having average size of 0.15 mm, shape factor of 0.88 and density of 1040 kg m⁻³ are fluidized using air at 2 atm absolute and 25 °C. If the cross section of empty bed is 0.4 m², the minimum height (m) of the fluidized bed, with voidage of 0.45 will be _____ .

Correct: 2.2 to 2.3

Worked solutions are not printed here — every one of these questions carries a full explanation inside the test itself, which is where it is actually useful: after an answer has been committed. Sit the 2016 paper.

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